IT자격증시험에 대비하여 모든 과목의 시험대비 자료를 발췌하였습니다.: 2013

2013년 12월 30일 월요일

도비 Symantec ST0-12X 시험

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-12X
시험 이름: Symantec (Veritas Cluster Server 5 for Unix(STS))
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Q&A: 100 문항
업데이트: 2013-12-29

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NO.1 what are two characteristics of a nard service group dependency? (choose two.)
A. Both parent and child groups fail over if a critical resource in the child group faults.
B. Only online local hard dependencies are supported.
C. If a critical resource in the parent group faults, the child group is taken offline before the parent group.
D. Bringing the parent online is allowed if the child is offline.
E. Only two parents and one child o group can be configured in a nard dependency.
Answer: A B

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NO.2 You have a service group dependency:
If the child group faults, the parent group is taken offline. If the parent group faults, the child group remains
online. Which type of dependency is this an example of?
A. firm
B. hard
C. son
D. remote
Answer: A

Symantec시험문제   ST0-12X인증   ST0-12X자격증   ST0-12X

NO.3 How do you customize Veritas Cluster Server default behavior to alert someone whenever there is only
one heartbeat in a Veritas Cluster Server cluster?
A. The preinstalled violation trigger does this with no customization required.
B. Install the injeopardy trigger and customize it to perform the required alerting.
C. Configure the notifier to execute a customized script to perform the required alerting.
D. Develop a custom resource type and agent to monitor the Veritas Cluster Server heartbeat resources.
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-12X   ST0-12X자료

NO.4 Which two are valid settings for FailoverPolicy? (Choose two.)
A. priority
B. RoundRobin
C. Order
D. Failover
E. SystemUst
Answer: A B

Symantec   ST0-12X   ST0-12X덤프   ST0-12X인증

NO.5 You have a three-system cluster.
The cluster runs an application that depends on a database.
The application and database do not need to run on the same system.
If the database faults, you want the application to continue to run, unless the database cannot be
restarted on another system. Which type of service group dependency do you create to ensure this
behavior?
A. online global son, where the database is the parent
B. online global soft, where the application is the parent
C. online global firm, where the application is the parent
D. online global firm, where the database is the parent
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-12X자료   ST0-12X자료

NO.6 whicn feature of Veritas Cluster Server allows you to keep applications in separate groups while still
allowing control of the order they start?
A. service group dependencies
B. complementary events
C. replicated data clusters
D. notifications
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-12X pdf   ST0-12X

NO.7 You are adding a system named Systemc to an existing two-system cluster.
What must you do atter installing Veritas Cluster Server and configuring cluster communications on the
new system?
A. run hastart -newnode on the new system
B. run hasys -frorce System C on the new system
C. run haclus -adonode SystemC on any system
D. run hastart on the new system
Answer: D

Symantec자료   ST0-12X인증   ST0-12X인증

NO.8 You stopped Veritas Cluster Server on system node13. You now need to remove this node from the
cluster configuration. When you attempt to do this, you get an error message. What could cause this
error?
A. One or more system List attributes still contains node13.
B. Veritas Cluster Server must be completely shut down on all nodes.
C. The LL T driver on node13 was not stopped.
D. The GAB daemon on node13 was not stopped.
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-12X   ST0-12X최신덤프   ST0-12X

NO.9 What is the location of the main Veritas Cluster Server configuration file?
A. /op/VRTSvcs/conf/config/
B. /etc/VRTSvcs/conf/
C./etc/VRTSvcs/conf/config/
D. /op/VRTSvcs/confi
Answer: C

Symantec dump   ST0-12X pdf   ST0-12X최신덤프

NO.10 What is a characteristic of Veritas Cluster Server service group dependencies?
A. Each parent service group can link with only three child service groups; however, a child service group
is not limited to the number of links to parent service groups.
B. If a parent service group with an online local firm group dependency faults, it will take the
corresponding child
C. A child service group will remain online if the dependent parent service group with an online local firm
group dependency faults.
D. A service group cannot be a child service group if its parent service group is a child of another group.
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-12X dump   ST0-12X pdf   ST0-12X   ST0-12X자격증

NO.11 You stopped Veritas Cluster Server on a system and completely removed the system from the Veritas
Cluster Server configuration. You now need to stop the GAB driver without shutting down the system.
Which command accomplishes this?
A. gabconfig-U
B. gabetl stop
C. gab-stop
D. gabdaemon uninstall
Answer: A

Symantec자료   ST0-12X   ST0-12X   ST0-12X

NO.12 What should be expected during a failover when a service group is partially ONLINE?
A. The service group will become fully ONLINE on the target system.
B. The service group will become partially ONLINE on the target system.
C. The service group will go OFFLINE and remain OFFLINE.
D. The service group will become OFFLINE temporarily on the target system.
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-12X dump   ST0-12X   ST0-12X   ST0-12X pdf

NO.13 Which network resource combination would you use for failovers of virtual IP addresses across
interfaces on a single system when NICs are connected to different subnets?
A. IP/NIC
B. IPMultiNIC/MultiNICA
C. IPMultiNICB/MultiNICB
D. IPMultiNICC/MultiNICC
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-12X최신덤프   ST0-12X   ST0-12X

NO.14 Which resource is NOT considered by Veritas Cluster Server when determining whether a service
group is online or not?
A. onOnly
B. OnOff
C. failover
D. parallel
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-12X기출문제   ST0-12X인증   ST0-12X최신덤프   ST0-12X

NO.15 A legacy managed host is a system managed by Storage Foundation Management Server and runs
__ .
A. Storage Foundation 4.x
B. Foundation Suite 3.x
C. Storage Replicator 4.x
D. Veritas Enterprise Administrator 3.x
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-12X   ST0-12X

NO.16 During a test of a NIC resource, the Veritas Cluster Server engine log indicates that the service group
and the IP resource enter the FAULTED state on all systems in the cluster. The NIC resource enters the
ONLINE state atter the root cause of the fault is corrected.
Which default attribute setting allows the service group to attempt to start without manual intervention?
A. AutoStart
B. AutoClear
C. AutoRestart
D. AutoFailover
Answer: C

Symantec dumps   ST0-12X자격증   ST0-12X dumps

NO.17 What does the Veritas Cluster Server Cluster Manager Web Console require for high availability?
A. notification set to 0
B. a Microson Windows workstation
C. the vcsweb user account
D. a virtuallP address
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-12X덤프   ST0-12X

NO.18 You need to remove the system named node04 from a running Veritas Cluster Server cluster.
What is the command to failover any service groups running, then stop Veritas Cluster Server on that
system?
A. hastop -sys node04 -evacuate
B. haevac -remove -sys node04
C. haconf -stop -evac -sys node04
D. hasys node04 -local -failover -stop
Answer: A

Symantec기출문제   ST0-12X시험문제   ST0-12X   ST0-12X   ST0-12X

NO.19 A Veritas Cluster Server design calls for a failover database service group and a failover middleware
service group to be dependent on each other such that the database and middleware are always running
on the same system.
Which type of service group dependency satisfies this design requirement?
A. online local
B. online remote
C. online global
D. online together
Answer: A

Symantec기출문제   ST0-12X인증   ST0-12X

NO.20 You are designing a large Veritas Cluster Server cluster. One of the requirements from the service
level agreement is that applications will be automatically moved from one system to another if the first
system's processor usage exceeds a configured threshold value.
Which component do you incorporate into the design to accomplish this?
A. ToleranceLimit service group attribute
B. Load failover policy
C. cpuusage trigger
D. UseCPU cluster attribute
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-12X   ST0-12X

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-29B
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec Endpoint Protection 11 MR 4(STS))
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NO.1 When using the Push Deployment Wizard, which two methods can be used to identify the target
machines to which you want to install the Symantec Endpoint Protection client? (Select two.)
A.browse through Windows networking
B.import a file containing IP addresses
C.specify a UNC path
D.import a file containing MAC addresses
E.import hostnames from an LDAP server
Answer: A, B

Symantec   ST0-29B   ST0-29B   ST0-29B

NO.2 Which file contains the Symantec Endpoint Protection client communication settings?
A. GRC.dat
B. Sylink.xml
C. GRC.xml
D. Sylink.dat
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-29B시험문제   ST0-29B   ST0-29B   ST0-29B pdf

NO.3 An administrator makes a change in the Active Directory structure, which has been imported into
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM). By default, when will the change automatically be
reflected in SEPM?
A. as soon as the change is made in Active Directory
B. maximum 1 hour
C. maximum 4 hours
D. maximum 24 hours
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-29B   ST0-29B   ST0-29B덤프   ST0-29B dump

NO.4 Which remediation option is available to administrators using the Find Unmanaged Computers
feature?
A. deploy a Symantec Endpoint Protection client package to the unmanaged host
B. monitor and log network traffic observed from the unmanaged host
C. install Microsoft Windows operating system security patches
D. disable network access pending Symantec Endpoint Protection client installation
Answer: C

Symantec최신덤프   ST0-29B   ST0-29B자료   ST0-29B

NO.5 What can an administrator do to proactively obtain information about unknown devices on a network?
A. script a network audit using the Find Unmanaged Computers feature
B. create an Unmanaged Computer notification
C. schedule an audit report to send to the administrator
D. schedule regular LDAP synchronization
Answer: B

Symantec최신덤프   ST0-29B   ST0-29B자격증   ST0-29B최신덤프   ST0-29B인증

NO.6 Which two features migrate from previous versions of Symantec AntiVirus? (Select two.)
A.Tamper Protection Settings
B.AntiVirus Settings
C.Uninstall Password
D.Client Group Structure
E.Firewall Settings
Answer: B, D

Symantec   ST0-29B자료   ST0-29B최신덤프

NO.7 Which setting can be enabled to report computers without a Symantec Endpoint Protection Agent?
A. LAN Detector
B. Unmanaged Detector
C. Segment Detector
D. Network Detector
Answer: D

Symantec기출문제   ST0-29B   ST0-29B   ST0-29B자격증

NO.8 Which feature can be configured to increase or decrease performance of scheduled scans?
A. scan frequency
B. CPU throttling
C. heartbeat interval
D. tuning options
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-29B시험문제   ST0-29B시험문제   ST0-29B

NO.9 How many Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers can connect to an embedded database?
A. one
B. two
C. four
D. unlimited
Answer: A

Symantec덤프   ST0-29B시험문제   ST0-29B   ST0-29B   ST0-29B   ST0-29B

NO.10 Based on Symantec best practices, which two tasks should be performed before migrating from
Symantec AntiVirus Corporate Edition to Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Select two.)
A.disable Auto-Protect
B.disable scheduled scans
C.disable Tamper Protection
D.scan all clients
E.purge the quarantine
Answer: B, C

Symantec   ST0-29B   ST0-29B

NO.11 Which two actions can the Centralized Exception policy perform? (Select two.)
A.exclude a specific folder from AntiVirus and AntiSpyware File System Auto-Protect scanning
B.specify an exclusion to keep a known risk from being scanned
C.specify machines from which the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console cannot be run
D.exclude forwarding of certain log types from the Symantec Endpoint Protection client
E.specify Intrusion Prevention system signatures for exclusion
Answer: A, B

Symantec   ST0-29B인증   ST0-29B   ST0-29B   ST0-29B

NO.12 An administrator has successfully installed Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager onto a Windows
2003 Server using the installation wizard. Which component is deployed to the server at this point in time?
A. AntiVirus/AntiSpyware Protection
B. Proactive Threat Protection
C. Apache Tomcat Server
D. Central Quarantine Server
E. Network Threat Protection
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-29B기출문제   ST0-29B dumps

NO.13 Which two actions are available when TruScan Proactive Threat Scan detects a trojan or worm?
(Select two.)
A.delete
B.ignore
C.terminate
D.quarantine
E.clean
Answer: C, D

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NO.14 What is the default replication frequency when adding an additional site to a Symantec Endpoint
Protection deployment?
A. 1 hour
B. 8 hours
C. daily
D. weekly
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection client component must be installed to enable Unmanaged
Detector mode?
A. AntiVirus and AntiSpyware
B. Application and Device Control
C. Network Threat Protection
D. Network Access Control
Answer: C

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NO.16 In which client management log can an administrator identify when the client last connected to the
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. Control
B. Traffic
C. System
D. Event
Answer: C

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NO.17 If a Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) client is installed with AntiVirus and AntiSpyware components
only, what must be done to install the SEP Firewall?
A. redeploy the original installation package to the client
B. deploy the firewall license file to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
C. deploy a new package including the firewall component
D. deploy a firewall policy to that client through an XML file
Answer: C

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NO.18 A Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager administrator is importing from an Active Directory
environment. The director needs to know which object types are being imported. Which two object types
are imported into Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager from Active Directory? (Select two.)
A.security groups
B.organizational units
C.computers
D.sites
E.domains
Answer: B, C

Symantec자료   ST0-29B시험문제   ST0-29B   ST0-29B자격증   ST0-29B

NO.19 Immediately after installation, what does a client do upon first contacting Symantec Endpoint Security
Manager?
A. register with the manager
B. download the latest policy
C. update virus definitions
D. launch a full system scan
Answer: A

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NO.20 An administrator needs a TruScan Proactive Threat scan that will detect a potential trojan, worm, or
keylogger as quickly as possible. How should the administrator set the scan frequency?
A. set it to continuous
B. set it to scan new processes immediately
C. select the default setting
D. set it to 5 minutes
Answer: B

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-093
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec Data Loss Prevention 10.5 (STS))
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Q&A: 132 문항
업데이트: 2013-12-29

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NO.1 What is a function of the Enforce Server?
A. policy creation
B. detection of incidents
C. inspection of network communication
D. identification of confidential data in repositories
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which detection server can block file transfer protocol (FTP) requests?
A. Network Monitor Server
B. FTP Prevent Server
C. Web Prevent Server
D. Endpoint Prevent Server
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which server encrypts the message when using a Modify SMTP Message response rule?
A. Encryption Gateway
B. SMTP Prevent Server
C. MTA Server
D. Enforce Server
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two actions are associated with FlexResponse? (Select two.)
A. manually quarantine files
B. automatically quarantine files on file shares
C. modify a response within a policy
D. automatically quarantine files on endpoints
E. apply digital rights to content
Answer: A,E

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NO.5 What does Network Monitor use to identify network traffic going to a nonstandard port?
A. string matching
B. port range
C. either UDP or TCP
D. protocol signature
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which products run on the same detection server?
A. Network Protect and Network Discover
B. Endpoint Discover and Network Discover
C. Network Monitor and Network Prevent
D. Network Discover and Network Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.7 What should be used to exclude email going to any email address in the partner.com domain?
A. IP filter
B. L7 filter
C. Content filter
D. Sender/User Matches pattern
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which feature is a key benefit of on-screen notification?
A. uses on-screen notification in different languages
B. educates the user about the violation that has occurred
C. stops the movement of data that violates policies
D. notifies the user that the Endpoint Agent is active
Answer: D

Symantec기출문제   ST0-093   ST0-093

NO.9 The user interface (UI) will be used to upgrade to Symantec Data Loss Prevention 10.5. A Data Loss
Prevention administrator will be logging in to the Enforce Server from a desktop to perform the upgrade.
The Vontu\Protect\config\Manager.properties file is set to default settings. Which port must be open to
connect to the upgrader application?
A. 8080
B. 8090
C. 8100
D. 8300
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which two protocols are available by default and recognized by Network Monitor by their individual
signatures? (Select two.)
A. FTP
B. HTTPS
C. IM: AIM
D. SNMP
E. TFTP
Answer: A,C

Symantec   ST0-093 dump   ST0-093 dump   ST0-093

NO.11 What must a policy manager do when working with Exact Data Matching (EDM) indexes?
A. re-index large data sources on a daily or weekly basis
B. index the original data source on the detection server
C. deploy the index only to specific detection servers
D. create a new data profile if data source schema changes
Answer: D

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NO.12 Where does an incident responder find the exact matches that triggered an incident?
A. Incident Dashboard
B. Incident Snapshot
C. Incident List
D. Incident Summary Report
Answer: B

Symantec시험문제   ST0-093자격증   ST0-093

NO.13 Which component has an obfuscated (hidden) log?
A. Endpoint Agent
B. Enforce Server
C. Network Monitor
D. Network Discover
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-093자격증   ST0-093

NO.14 Which product lets an incident responder see who has access to confidential files on a public file
share?
A. Network Protect
B. Endpoint Discover
C. Endpoint Prevent
D. Network Discover
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-093   ST0-093   ST0-093 dump

NO.15 What are two available options when accessing the Configure Server page to configure protocol filters?
(Select two.)
A. HTTPS
B. FTP
C. SMTP
D. ICMP
E. UDP
Answer: B,C

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NO.16 What is the sequence of message processing for Network Monitor?
A. Packet Capture -> File Reader -> Detection -> Incident Writer
B. Monitor Controller -> Detection -> File Reader -> Incident Writer
C. File Reader -> IncidentPersister -> Manager -> Notifier
D. Request Processor -> Packet Capture -> File Reader -> Detection
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is the primary function of Endpoint Prevent?
A. encrypts confidential data being sent over the network or copied to removable media
B. finds confidential data and quarantines the data to a central repository
C. disables end-user devices that are unauthorized by a company's data security policies
D. stops confidential data from being sent over the network or copied to removable media
Answer: A

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NO.18 To which file system folder does PacketCapture write reconstructed SMTP messages?
A. drop
B. drop_pcap
C. drop_discover
D. drop_smtp
Answer: B

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NO.19 What must a Data Loss Prevention administrator recycle for Network Monitor filter configuration
changes to take effect?
A. VontuMonitorController
B. PacketCapture
C. FileReader
D. Network Monitor
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which information is recommended to be included in an Exact Data Matching (EDM) data source?
A. date fields
B. numeric fields with fewer than five digits
C. column names in the first row
D. country, state, or province names
Answer: C

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시험 번호/코드: 250-309
시험 이름: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange)
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NO.1 Provided that appropriate options are set for users, which two actions can users perform on the Details
tab of the Vault Cache Properties dialog box? (Select two.)
A. view header and content synchronization status
B. start synchronization
C. disable synchronization
D. reverse synchronization
E. edit header and content synchronization categories
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 A large enterprise organization requires Enterprise Vault Operations Manager. The company will have
five Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) sites and three EV Directories. How many
monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which feature delegation must be set to Read/Write in Internet Information Services (IIS 7.0) before
installing Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook Web Access (OWA) Extensions?
A. .NET Trust Levels
B. .NET Roles
C. Failed Request Tracing Rules
D. IPv4 Address and Domain Restrictions
Answer: D

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NO.4 An administrator is installing Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9). Where should the
administrator place the EV 9 databases and log files?
A. in the installation directory of the SQL server
B. on separate physical disks of the EV server
C. on separate physical disks of the SQL server
D. on direct attached storage of the EV server
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which information is held in the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) Directory Database?
A. archived items
B. configuration data for an EV 9 site
C. configuration information of indexed data
D. storage location of single instanced items
Answer: B

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NO.6 A company is considering Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange for archiving their Exchange
systems. Personnel at the company are having trouble understanding the differences between their
existing backup environment and a separate archiving environment. Which two differentiate archiving
from a backup system? (Select two.)
A. provides retention periods for individual sets of data
B. requires operator intervention to perform a data restore request
C. provides duplicate copies for disaster recovery purposes
D. ingests data from the Exchange store to the archive storage layer
E. enables fast restore capabilities for mission critical data
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 An organization enables Outlook Anywhere (RPC over HTTP) for mobile users so users can retrieve
archived email through Outlook without being connected to a VPN. When end users who use this new
functionality try to restore an item, they are no longer prompted for where they want the item to be
restored. What is the reason for this change in behavior?
A. The system administrator has disabled custom restore locations in the policy.
B. The Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook Add-In is using HTTP-only functionality.
C. The policy RPC over HTTP Restrictions is set to Disable User Extensions.
D. The policy RPC over HTTP Restrictions is set to Disable Offline Vault.
Answer: B

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NO.8 An administrator is setting up Exchange managed folders and needs to apply the same retention
settings to Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9). Which action needs to happen to force EV 9
to synchronize the managed folder retentions?
A. in Desktop Folder policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to
Normal
B. in Desktop policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Managed
C. in Mailbox policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Managed
D. in Mailbox policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Normal
Answer: C

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NO.9 An organization is debating which Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook client to deploy
to end users. Which two features can be used if the HTTP-only Outlook Add-In is deployed? (Select two.)
A. Users can choose which archives to store items in.
B. Users can restore items to the Restored Items folder.
C. Users can use Vault Cache.
D. Users can cancel Pending Items.
E. Users can store and classify items with retention categories.
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 What are two benefits of enabling Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) for Outlook Web
Access users? (Select two.)
A. offloads Archiving Task from EV 9 server
B. provides remote access to multiple user archives
C. enables remote access to archived public folder items
D. extracts mail from the Exchange Server
E. runs independent of EV 9 services
Answer: B,C

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NO.11 What is the minimum version of the .NET framework required on the Enterprise Vault Server for
Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange?
A. .NET 4.0
B. .NET 3.5 SP1
C. .NET 1.1 and 2.0
D. .NET 2.0 and 3.0 SP2
Answer: B

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NO.12 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. In order to perform a point-in-time recovery of the database, what must be backed up daily?
A. the EnterpriseVaultDirectory SQL database
B. the SQL transaction logs
C. the SQL databases
D. the EnterpriseVaultAuditing SQL database
Answer: B

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NO.13 What are two physical data storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Symantec Enterprise Vault 9
for Exchange? (Select two.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store Group
D. Vault Store Partitions
E. Enterprise Vault Collector
Answer: A,D

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NO.14 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. On which context menu in the Vault Admin Console does the administrator set and clear the
vault store backup mode?
A. the Enterprise Vault database
B. the Enterprise Vault services
C. the Enterprise Vault server
D. the Enterprise Vault site
Answer: D

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NO.15 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. The administrator has yet to run a backup of the vault store partition. The administrator has
Safety Copy enabled for the Vault Store. Given that the administrator has already performed some
mailbox archiving, what should occur after running the backup for the first time and clearing the archive
bit?
A. The safety copies are removed from the Exchange store.
B. The safety copies are removed from the storage queues.
C. The safety copies are flagged for removal for the next Storage Expiry.
D. The safety copies are flagged for removal when the services are restarted.
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: ASC-091
시험 이름: Symantec (ASC Data Protection 2010)
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NO.1 An administrator is configuring multi-streaming for a few backup policies.The administrator is backing
up four volumes configured on two physical disks from a NetBackup client.How many backup streams
should be configured for best backup performance?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

Symantec   ASC-091 dumps   ASC-091

NO.2 Which command is most commonly used to troubleshoot and test the connectivity between a
master/media server and a client?
A.bpconnect
B.bpclient
C.bpclntcmd
D.bpdbm
Answer: C

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NO.3 What allows administrators to freeze or unfreeze media?
A.Device Monitor > Media
B.Storage Unit Properties
C.Media and Device Management > Media
D.Media and Device Management > Tape
Answer: C

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NO.4 Where is the best location to find binary sizes to help determine if an administrator's NetBackup
environment has sufficient disk space allocated for an upgrade to safely and efficiently back up and
restore all of their data?
A.Symantec NetBackup Administrators Guide
B.Symantec NetBackup Troubleshooting Guide
C.Symantec NetBackup Upgrade Release Notes
D.Symantec NetBackup Operations Guide
Answer: C

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NO.5 NetBackup (NBU) master, media, and client servers may be run in mixed environments.Windows 2000
(Win2K) is not supported in NBU 7.0.How can Windows 2000 Servers be protected in a supported
configuration?
A.Win2K with a 6.x client may be backed up with an NBU 7.0 media server.
B.Win2K with a 7.x client may be backed up with an NBU 6.5.4 media server.
C.Win2K with a 5.x client may be backed up with an NBU 7.0 media server.
D.Win2K with a 6.x client may be backed up with an NBU 5.x media server.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A restore is initiated for a client in which part of the admin console?
A.Backup, Archive, and Restore
B.Activity Monitor
C.Backup Policy Administration
D.Device Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer is experiencing long backup times.An administrator is given the task of evaluating the data
transfer path.What are the components that make up the data transfer path?
A.the NetBackup client, the client memory, the NetBackup server, and the storage device
B.the network, the NetBackup server, and the storage device
C.the NetBackup client, the network, the NetBackup server, and the storage device
D.the NetBackup server, the network, the network switch, and the storage device
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two should be verified prior to installing NetBackup? (Select two.)
A.mount all CIFS file systems to the server
B.apply the most current operating system patches and updates to the server
C.remove all storage devices from the server
D.remove any other vendor's backup software currently configured on the system
E.un-mount all the NFS file systems from the server
Answer: B, D

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NO.9 What is the originator ID for nbpem process, which is used in unified logging?
A.115
B.116
C.117
D.118
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the catalog disaster recovery file that is created during the online catalog backup intended for?
A.record keeping purposes
B.identification of media required for a recovery
C.identification of the clients that were backed up over a specified time period
D.automation of the process of NetBackup recovery
Answer: D

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NO.11 How do administrators disable the TapeAlert feature in UNIX for NetBackup?
A.check the disable_tape_alert box in the device manager
B.create a touch file at /usr/openv/volmgr/database/NO_TAPEALERT
C.create a touch file at /usr/openv/netbackup/NO_TAPEALERT
D.add an entry (disable_tapealert) in the bp.conf
Answer: B

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NO.12 An administrator receives a call from a customer stating that all the backup jobs that were scheduled to
run the previous night did not run.Which NetBackup process should the administrator look into to
troubleshoot the problem?
A.nbpem
B.nbemm
C.bpdbjobs
D.bpdbm
Answer: A

Symantec   ASC-091 dump   ASC-091

NO.13 What is the command syntax to immediately expire images on a particular tape (tapeid)?
A.bpexpdate -expire 1 -id <tapeid>
B.bpexpdate -m <tapeid> -d 0
C.bpexpdate -id <tapeid> -d 0
D.bpexpdate -m <tapeid> -d 1
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which NetBackup process transfers the full data stream from the client to the media server when using
deduplication?
A.bpdm
B.bptm
C.bpbkar
D.bpdp
Answer: C

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NO.15 How is a backup executed manually from the NetBackup Admin Console?
A.right-click on the client in the Host Properties screen and click on Backup
B.set the schedule to execute at 00:00:00 in the backup policy
C.right-click on the client's backup policy and select "manual backup" then select the client name
D.right-click on any line in the Activity Monitor and select "manual backup", then enter the client name
Answer: C

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NO.16 The maximum data buffer size is calculated as a multiple of operating system (OS) pages (1 page =
4KB).The maximum OS pages is 256 (0 to 255).What is the maximum size limit for data buffers on
Windows?
A.64KB
B.1024KB
C.256KB
D.512KB
Answer: B

Symantec   ASC-091   ASC-091

NO.17 Which one of the following is a tape drive cleaning method within NetBackup
A.frequency-based cleaning
B.on-demand cleaning with drive-alert
C.manual cleaning with a tape cleaning solution
D.scheduled cleaning
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which NetBackup command line utility is used to verify communication between NetBackup and a
robotic tape library?
A.vmoprcmd
B.robtest
C.sgscan
D.libtest
Answer: B

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NO.19 An administrator has a NetBackup environment with four LTO3 tape drives and 20 clients.The
master/media server is on a 1 Gb connection, but the clients only have 100 Mb connections.Which two
settings can be used to improve the backup performance? (Select two.)
A.enable multistreaming for all policies and increase the aximum jobs per client to a bigger value
B.enable hardware compression on the tape drives
C.enable multiplexing at the STU level and set it to a higher value
D.enable Client Encryption Option on the network clients
E.exclude large clients from daily backups
Answer: A, C

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NO.20 Where can the NetBackup release updates be found?
A.http://www.symantec.com/netbackup/updates/overview.jsp?pid=15143
B.http://www.symantec.com/business/support/overview.jsp?pid=15143
C.http://www.symantec.com/business/software/overview.jsp?pid=15143
D.http://www.symantec.com/netbackup/support/overview.jsp?pid=15143
Answer: B

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시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 (STS))
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Q&A: 137 문항
업데이트: 2013-12-29

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NO.1 What is required before attempting installation of the Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 appliance?
A. console access to the appliance
B. hostname for default gateway
C. hostname, port, username, and password for proxy
D. two IP addresses for each appliance
Answer: A

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NO.2 An administrator needs to determine whether a sending MTA is being throttled by Symantec Brightmail
Gateway 9.0. Where is this information located?
A. Reputation Summary report
B. IP reputation lookup table
C. SMTP server logs
D. message audit logs
Answer: B

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NO.3 During which phase of outbound message flow does Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 determine
whether the number of recipients exceeds the good number of recipients per message?
A. message routing
B. message delivery
C. outbound SMTP session
D. outbound SMTP connection
Answer: C

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NO.4 A company uses multiple control centers. What must be done to ensure legitimate NDRs are recognized
by Bounce Attack Prevention across all scanners?
A. configure the same seed value on each control center
B. configure different seed values on each control center
C. configure the same seed value on each scanner
D. configure different seed values on each scanner
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which feature, when enabled through the directory data sources, allows third party MTAs the ability to
relay through Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 and protects it against becoming an open relay?
A. MTA verification
B. address validation
C. TLS certificate authentication
D. SMTP authentication
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature improves responsiveness to new spam threats and
increases overall antispam effectiveness?
A. rapid release definitions
B. Fastpass
C. microupdates
D. real time updates
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature will change the original domain of an internal user
relaying mail outside of an organization?
A. address masquerading
B. address aliasing
C. domain mapping
D. content filtering
Answer: D

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NO.8 What are the Symantec Global Bad and Good Sender lists based on?
A. reputation data from Symantec Global Services
B. reputation data from a global Symantec LiveUpdate server
C. reputation data from the Symantec Global Intelligence Network
D. global reputation data from Symantec Protection Center
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the new encryption action introduced in Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0?
A. deliver messages with S/MIME encryption
B. deliver messages with content encryption
C. deliver messages with envelope encryption
D. deliver messages with PGP encryption
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which TCP port is used for communication between the Control Center and the scanner(s)?
A. 41001
B. 41002
C. 41004
D. 41008
Answer: B

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NO.11 Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 includes a new policy-based encryption feature. How is this new
feature licensed?
A. The license is included with Symantec Protection Suite.
B. The license is included with Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0.
C. The license is included with Symantec Content Encryption.
D. The license is included with Symantec Endpoint Encryption.
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is the default report data retention period?
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
Answer: A

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NO.13 .In which two situations are multiple group policies useful? (Select two.)
A. when the entire organization wants to delete spam
B. when only the Human Resources department wants to receive spam
C. when only the Engineering department wants to keep message logs
D. when only the Legal department should be allowed to send archive files
E. when all of the departments want to scan outbound messages
Answer: B, D

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NO.14 Which MTA operation is used if queues need to be drained to remove a host from use and continue
scanning and delivery of messages?
A. accept and deliver messages normally
B. pause message scanning and delivery
C. do not accept incoming messages
D. flush incoming messages
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is the maximum number of rows a report can have?
A. 100 rows
B. 1,000 rows
C. 10,000 rows
D. 100,000 rows
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which additional Email Reports Data collection must be enabled to track Top Probe Accounts via
reports?
A. Invalid Senders
B. Sender HELO domains
C. Sender IP connections
D. Invalid Recipients
Answer: D

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NO.17 What are two functions of the Control Center? (Select two.)
A. It provides message management services.
B. It downloads spam definitions.
C. It hosts Spam Quarantine.
D. It downloads virus definitions.
E. It runs filters.
Answer: A, C

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NO.18 Which two actions must be taken to allow end-users to create personal Good and Bad Senders lists.?
(Select two.)
A. add "Hold message in Spam Quarantine" action to Local Bad Senders domains
B. check the option "Enable end-user settings for this policy group"
C. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Recipient Validation functions
D. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Routing functions
E. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Address Resolution functions
Answer: B, E

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NO.19 During which phase of inbound message flow does Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 accept, reject, or
defer messages on the basis of the message envelope?
A. SMTP delivery
B. message filtering
C. SMTP session
D. message routing
Answer: C

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NO.20 An organization is receiving spam because of small targeted attacks from unknown senders. Which
Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature should help slow down these types of attacks?
A. dictionary attack prevention
B. directory harvest attack prevention
C. global reputation analysis
D. connection classification
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-132
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec Messaging Gateway 9.5 Exam)
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Q&A: 115 문항
업데이트: 2013-12-29

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NO.1 In which two situations are multiple group policies useful? (Select two.)
A.when the entire organization wants to delete spam
B.when only the Human Resources department wants to receive spam
C.when only the Engineering department wants to keep message logs
D.when only the Legal department should be allowed to send archive files
E.when all of the departments want to scan outbound messages
Answer: B, D

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NO.2 A diagnostics package for a scanner-only appliance can be generated from the GUI in Symantec
Messaging Gateway 9.5.If the package is small (less than 5 MB), which transfer protocol type should be
used by the administrator to verify the diagnostics package before providing it to technical support for
analysis?
A.email to administrator
B.download to desktop
C.FTP
D.SCP
Answer: B

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NO.3 An employee reports that a message sent to a customer was rejected.The employee provides
sufficient information for the administrator to find the message using the Message Audit log.The employee
wants to know why that message was blocked.Which section of the Message Audit Log detail page would
provide this information?
A.Verdict
B.Message Header
C.Tracker
D.Destination
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which Directory Data Source function must be configured to enable end-user spam quarantine?
A.SMTP authentication
B.address resolution
C.recipient validation
D.authentication
Answer: D

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NO.5 Message throughput of a Symantec Messaging Gateway scanner-only appliance can be reduced by
which two features? (Select two.)
A.rapid release definitions
B.real-time updates
C.DKIM signing
D.SMTP authentication
E.hourly quarantine expunging
Answer: C, D

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NO.6 How could an administrator filter email more aggressively by adjusting the suspected spam score?
A.Raise the suspected spam score from the default to 99.
B.Lower the suspected spam score from the default to 60.
C.Lower the suspected spam score from the default to 24.
D.Raise the suspected spam score from the default to 91.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the default time period that a suspect virus can reside in the Suspect Virus Quarantine?
A.2 hours
B.4 hours
C.6 hours
D.8 hours
Answer: C

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NO.8 An administrator tests the default antivirus policies by sending a message with an encrypted
attachment.
When the administrator checks the recipient inbox, what appears?
A.The test email appears with a modified subject line.
B.A system-generated message appears concerning an unscannable attachment.
C.A pointer to the Suspect Virus Quarantine appears.
D.The email is missing due to deletion by the system.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which two actions must be taken to allow end-users to create personal Good and Bad Senders lists?
(Select two.)
A.Add "Hold message in Spam Quarantine" action to Local Bad Senders domains.
B.Check the option "Enable end-user settings for this policy group".
C.Configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Recipient Validation functions.
D.Configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Routing functions.
E.Configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Address Resolution functions.
Answer: B, E

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NO.10 Which prerequisite must be met to take advantage of the Connection Classification and Fastpass
features?
A.Symantec Messaging Gateway must use a virtual IP address.
B.Symantec Messaging Gateway must be configured with two network interfaces.
C.Symantec Messaging Gateway must be the first SMTP hop into the network.
D.Symantec Messaging Gateway must be configured in scanner-only mode.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Symantec Messaging Gateway 9.5 is running out of disk space due to storing extended logs.The
administrator is required to store extended log data for more than a year.Which action should the
administrator take?
A.Lower the maximum log storage limit.
B.Increase the Messaging Gateway server threads.
C.Configure remote logging.
D.Delete messages from the queue.
Answer: C

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NO.12 What happens if a Symantec Messaging Gateway scanner is behind another internal messaging
gateway?
A.Symantec Messaging Gateway scanners might quarantine all mail from the internal gateway MTA if
DKIM is disabled.
B.Symantec Messaging Gateway scanners might identify the IP address of the internal gateway MTA as a
source of spam.
C.Symantec Messaging Gateway scanners will trust all mail from the internal gateway MTA.
D.Symantec Messaging Gateway scanners will grant the internal gateway MTA a Fastpass.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Before performing a software update on a scanner-only appliance, which MTA operation/mode should
be chosen if there are messages in the queues?
A.Stop the MTA.
B.Accept and deliver messages normally.
C.Pause message scanning and delivery.
D.Do not accept incoming messages.
Answer: D

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NO.14 An administrator recently investigated the debug logs for Symantec Messaging Gateway 9.5 and
resolved an issue.A few days later the administrator discovers that the disk storage is filling up
quickly.What is the likely cause?
A.Real-time update level is turned up.
B.Local log level is turned up.
C.Active user data is turned up.
D.Remote log level is turned up.
Answer: B

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NO.15 A company uses multiple control centers.What must be done to ensure legitimate NDRs are recognized
by Bounce Attack Prevention across all scanners?
A.Configure the same seed value on each control center.
B.Configure different seed values on each control center.
C.Configure the same seed value on each scanner.
D.Configure different seed values on each scanner.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Symantec Messaging Gateway 9.5 is certified for non-virtual deployment on which hardware devices?
A.Symantec 2950 series appliances
B.Symantec 3570 series appliances
C.Symantec 7100 series appliances
D.Symantec 8300 series appliances
Answer: B

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NO.17 A message released from Spam Quarantine is delivered to the intended recipient.Under the default
configuration, where is a copy of the misidentified message also sent?
A.intended recipient's manager
B.Symantec Security Response
C.Administrator@localhost
D.Admin@localhost
Answer: B

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NO.18 Where are options for backup and restore of Symantec Messaging Gateway 9.5 located?
A.Administration -> Version
B.Administration -> Configuration
C.Administration -> Control Center
D.Administration -> Recovery
Answer: A

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NO.19 What should an administrator do before performing a software update of Symantec Messaging
Gateway 9.5?
A.store backup on local server
B.store backup on a remote location using FTP
C.encrypt local backup
D.purge all backups from the appliance
Answer: C

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NO.20 What is the current name of the LDAP synchronization technology used within the Symantec
Messaging Gateway?
A.Dynamic Data Cache
B.Directory Data Service
C.Data Directory Tool
D.LDAP Directory Service
Answer: B

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-118
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec Enterprise Vault 10.0 for Exchange Technical Assessment)
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Q&A: 318 문항
업데이트: 2013-12-29

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NO.1 An organization has two Enterprise Vault sites. Site 1 contains EVServer01, EVServer02, and
EVServer03 Site 2 contains EVServer04 and EVServer05. Which three USL failover options are possible?
(Select three.)
A. EVServer01 failover to EVServer03
B. EVServer02 failover to EVServer01
C. EVServer02 failover to EVServer04
D. EVServer03 failover to EVServer04
E. EVServer04 failover to EVServer05
Answer: ABE

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NO.2 What are two reasons for adopting Enterprise Vault to manage unstructured content? (Select two.)
A. to protect messaging infrastructure to ensure uptime and productivity
B. to enable corporate discovery and end-user search
C. to centralize information management and retention
D. to create and retain snapshots to facilitate instant recovery
E. to enforce compliance with endpoint security policies
Answer: BC

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NO.3 An organization has a security requirement to track changes made to the Enterprise Vault (EV)
environment pertaining to retention categories, archiving policies, and archive permissions. Which tool
provides this data?
A. EV Auditing
B. EV Operation Monitor
C. EV Reporting
D. EV Event Log
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the purpose of the Enterprise Vault Directory Service?
A. to provide service access to Vault Stores and Archives
B. to manage indexes of archived data
C. to manage selected items to be restored
D. to provide services access to site configuration information
Answer: D

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NO.5 Enterprise Vault converts mail message attachments to text or HTML. What is a benefit of changing the
default conversion type from HTML to text for certain document types?
A. increases the performance of file conversion
B. allows for the support of additional document types
C. allows for integration with third-party indexing engines
D. significantly reduces the amount of space taken by indexing
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the function of the Task Controller Service in Enterprise Vault (EV)?
A. to interface between other EV tasks and the directory database
B. to manage EV storage of archived data
C. to support the Web Access application
D. to maintain indexes of archived data and to provide results of search requests
E. to manage the various archiving tasks to archive data from targets
Answer: E

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NO.7 In which three languages are Enterprise Vault clients available? (Select three.)
A. Traditional Chinese
B. Danish
C. Portuguese
D. Finnish
E. Hebrew
Answer: ABE

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NO.8 Enterprise Vault can synchronize which three Exchange permissions with archive permissions? (Select
three.)
A. Outlook Delegates permissions
B. Exchange Public Folder permissions
C. Outlook Folder permissions
D. Domain Administrative permissions
E. Outlook Address Book permissions
Answer: ABC.

NO.9 Which two Enterprise Vault features reduce the storage requirements needed by a company to
maintain information? (Select two.)
A. Data compression
B. Collections on archived data
C. Optimized Single Instance Storage
D. Storage on WORM devices
E. PST Migration
Answer: AC

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NO.10 What are two valid reasons for specifying DNS aliases? (Select two.)
A. to ensure that the Enterprise Vault (EV) server can be joined to the Windows domain
B. to simplify reconfiguration of the EV infrastructure
C. to ensure that the EV server can be contacted from external domains
D. to make it possible to use the EV built-in failover mechanisms
E. to broadcast the EV server's IP address to all clients on the network
Answer: BD

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NO.11 In which two ways does Optimized Single Instance Storage (OSIS) save storage space? (Select two.)
A. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in the same sharing boundary.
B. SIS identifies the SIS part from the filename.
C. Attachments are stored once within a sharing boundary.
D. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in different sharing boundaries.
E. Attachments are stored only once in a different sharing boundary.
Answer: AC

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NO.12 Which two core databases should an administrator allocate storage for during the Enterprise Vault
initial installation? (Select two.)
A. Vault Directory Database
B. Vault Store Database
C. Audit Database
D. Monitoring Database
E. Log Database
Answer: AD

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NO.13 A network administrator wants to limit RPC traffic across the network and decides to completely restrict
the use of DCOM and RPC for end users. Which Enterprise Vault (EV) Client Extensions
should be installed?
A. EV Vault Cache
B. EV HTTP Only Add-In
C. EV Archive Explorer
D. EV OWA Extensions
Answer: B

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NO.14 An administrator is installing Enterprise Vault (EV). Where should the installer place the EV databases
and log files?
A. in the installation directory of the SQL server
B. on separate physical disks of the EV server
C. on separate physical disks of the SQL server
D. on direct attached storage of the EV server
Answer: C

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NO.15 Enterprise Vault introduced enhanced archiving support for which Microsoft Exchange 2007 feature?
A. Outlook Web Access for Exchange 2007
B. Exchange Managed Folders
C. Exchange Management Shell
D. Exchange Dumpster
Answer: B

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NO.16 Given a multi-site installation, which Enterprise Vault (EV) component contains the configuration
information for all the EV sites?
A. Vault Store database
B. Vault Store Group database
C. Vault Directory database
D. Vault Configuration database
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which three are core Enterprise Vault services? (Select three.)
A. Archiving Service
B. Placeholder Service
C. Directory Service
D. Storage Service
E. Indexing Service
Answer: CDE

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NO.18 From which three sources does Enterprise Vault provide a solution for archiving PST files? (Select
three.)
A. Outlook profiles
B. Tape libraries
C. UNIX servers
D. Windows servers
E. Remote client workstations
Answer: ADE.

NO.19 Which component is directly below the Enterprise Vault Directory in the Vault Administration console's
hierarchy?
A. Vault Store Groups
B. Enterprise Vault Targets
C. Enterprise Vault Sites
D. Enterprise Vault Servers
Answer: C

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NO.20 What are the three primary physical data-storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Enterprise Vault?
(Select three.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store partitions
D. Enterprise Vault databases
E. Enterprise Vault Collector
Answer: ACD

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NO.21 An organization uses three Exchange Servers in a single domain and two Enterprise Vault (EV)
servers. How many Provisioning Tasks are required?
A. one per Exchange domain
B. one per EV server
C. one per Exchange Server
D. one per EV site
Answer: A

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NO.22 A global organization plans to deploy Enterprise Vault (EV). The organization has a severe limit on the
connectivity between two sites. Site A supports seven remote offices and Site B supports five remote
offices. A global deployment of EV is unrealistic. How should the organization design around this
obstacle?
A. deploy multiple EV Directories
B. deploy multiple EV sites that share a single directory
C. deploy all EV servers in Site A
D. place the EV Directory database halfway between the sites
Answer: A

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NO.23 What are three benefits of enabling Enterprise Vault (EV) for Outlook Web Access users.? (Select
three.)
A. extends the archived mail availability
B. provides remote access to multiple user archives
C. provides remote access to archived public folder items
D. unloads mail from the Exchange Server
E. runs independent of EV services
Answer: ABC.

NO.24 Which two databases are directly associated with Stores in Enterprise Vault?
A. Directory and Monitoring
B. Partition and Vault Store
C. Directory and Vault Store
D. Fingerprint and Vault Store
Answer: D

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NO.25 There are multiple Active Directory domains with Exchange servers in each domain. One Enterprise
Vault (EV) server is set up in one domain. Trust is established between the EV domain and the other
domains. What must be done in order for a single EV server to archive the Exchange servers?
A. break the trust between the Active Directory domains
B. configure the EV client to allow trusted domains
C. select the domain boxes in the Archiving Task properties
D. add the Active Directory domains under the Targets container
Answer: D

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NO.26 A large enterprise organization requires monitoring. The company will have five Enterprise Vault (EV)
sites and three EV Directories. How many monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.27 What is a benefit of archiving email?
A. enables efficient search and retrieval of email
B. provides a duplicate backup system of email
C. prevents users from deleting email
D. provides high availability of email
Answer: A

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NO.28 An organization needs an archiving vendor that can provide low administrative overhead for deploying
different archiving strategies. Which configuration task makes it easier to deploy different archiving
strategies using Enterprise Vault (EV)?
A. The administrator creates new Windows groups in Active Directory to align with their archiving strategy
and moves the users into these groups.
B. The administrator uses provisioning groups to apply different archiving policies to the various groups.
C. The administrator moves mailboxes to specific group Exchange servers, then runs an EV Policy
Manager script for each Exchange Server to deploy the policies.
D. The administrator creates a custom archiving policy for each executive user and leaves the default
policy for everyone else.
Answer: B

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NO.29 An organization has five Enterprise Vault (EV) servers. The servers are part of one Directory and two
EV sites. The Directory consists of two Vault Store Groups with two Vault Stores for each group. How
many EV Directory database(s), Fingerprint database(s), and Vault Store database(s) are in the
environment, respectively?
A. 2, 2, 4
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 1, 4
D. 2, 2, 2
Answer: B

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NO.30 What is an Enterprise Vault site?
A. a SQL database for system-wide configuration
B. a geographic configuration reference
C. a collection of policies, servers, and storage
D. a grouping of Active Directory domain controllers
Answer: C

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